EXAM ITIL-4-PRACTITIONER-DEPLOYMENT-MANAGEMENT DEMO - EXAM ITIL-4-PRACTITIONER-DEPLOYMENT-MANAGEMENT OVERVIEW

Exam ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Demo - Exam ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Overview

Exam ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Demo - Exam ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Overview

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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Practice success: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Change Implementation Lead and explains how to achieve success with Deployment Management through the application of ITIL guiding principles. It focuses on strategies that help establish a robust and value-driven deployment approach that aligns with business objectives and delivers measurable outcomes.
Topic 2
  • Roles and competencies: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Change Implementation Lead and focuses on identifying essential roles within Deployment Management and the competencies needed to perform them effectively. It explores how to position deployment responsibilities within an organization and what skill sets are necessary to ensure deployment tasks are carried out successfully.
Topic 3
  • Key concepts: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and covers the fundamental purpose of Deployment Management. It highlights why the structured management of service deployment is crucial for delivering new or modified services into the live environment efficiently while minimizing disruption and ensuring continuity in business operations.
Topic 4
  • Practice processes: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and delves into the key processes that shape Deployment Management. It outlines how these processes and activities can be aligned with the organization’s value stream to ensure that deployments are well-planned, coordinated, and delivered without disrupting existing services.
Topic 5
  • Practice success factors: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Change Implementation Lead and focuses on understanding practice success factors and the core metrics used to evaluate deployment effectiveness. It emphasizes the importance of tracking efficiency and success in service deployment and how these metrics help improve the overall stability and agility of the service transition process.
Topic 6
  • The ITIL Capability model: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and introduces how capability criteria contribute to developing and maturing Deployment Management practices. It focuses on aligning organizational capabilities with ITIL best practices to maintain consistency, quality, and effectiveness in service transitions.
Topic 7
  • Partners and suppliers: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Change Implementation Lead and examines the influence of partners and suppliers in the deployment process. It highlights the importance of effective collaboration and communication with external stakeholders to ensure that deployments are delivered according to expectations and with minimal risks.

Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Sample Questions (Q10-Q15):

NEW QUESTION # 10
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
An IT service provider is using continuous integration and is considering the introduction of continuous delivery. Which is a benefit of this proposed change for the service provider?

  • A. Developers spend less time fixing issues in their code
  • B. Code is tested iteratively and frequently
  • C. Deployments of software builds are scripted to allow for automation
  • D. Users experience changes which are smaller and more frequent

Answer: D

Explanation:
Continuous delivery (CD) in ITIL 4 extends continuous integration (CI) by ensuring that every validated change is ready for deployment to production, enabling smaller and more frequent releases. The key benefit for users is that they experience changes which are smaller and more frequent (Option D), reducing risk, improving feedback cycles, and delivering value faster.
Option A (Developers spend less time fixing issues in their code): Incorrect, as while CD may reduce some issues through automation, this is not its primary benefit, and CI already includes frequent testing to catch issues early.
Option B (Code is tested iteratively and frequently): Incorrect, as iterative and frequent testing is a feature of continuous integration, not a new benefit introduced by continuous delivery.
Option C (Deployments of software builds are scripted to allow for automation): Incorrect, as scripting and automation are part of both CI and CD pipelines, not a unique benefit of introducing CD.
Option D (Users experience changes which are smaller and more frequent): Correct, as CD enables rapid, incremental releases to production, directly benefiting users with faster and less disruptive updates.


NEW QUESTION # 11
[Apply Deployment Management Processes]
An organization is deploying new software and new servers to support a service that will be launched soon. Which TWO of these activities should the organization conduct as part of the 'verification of the service components' activity of the 'deployment lifecycle management' process?
Checking that the correct models of server have been supplied
Testing the software for defects
Creating a schedule for installing the new servers
Installing the new software to the newly installed servers

  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 1 and 4
  • C. 3 and 4
  • D. 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:
In ITIL 4, the 'verification of service components' activity within the deployment lifecycle management process ensures that delivered components meet specifications before deployment. The correct activities are:
Activity 1 (Checking that the correct models of server have been supplied): Part of verification, as it confirms that the hardware components match requirements.
Activity 2 (Testing the software for defects): Part of verification, as it ensures the software is functional and free of critical issues before deployment.
Activity 3 (Creating a schedule for installing the new servers): Incorrect, as scheduling is a planning activity, not verification.
Activity 4 (Installing the new software to the newly installed servers): Incorrect, as installation is part of the deployment execution, not verification.


NEW QUESTION # 12
[Measure and Improve Deployment Management]
An organization is aiming to achieve capability level 3 for the deployment management practice. What is an indication of the achievement of capability level 3?

  • A. The deployment management team regularly suggests and implements improvement opportunities
  • B. Employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows
  • C. The deployment manager is able to report on the effectiveness of the deployment management practice
  • D. Deployment models are developed and implemented

Answer: B

Explanation:
ITIL 4 defines capability level 3 for a practice as achieving integration across the organization, where the practice is embedded into broader workflows and understood by related practices. For deployment management, an indication of reaching capability level 3 is when employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows (Option B). This demonstrates cross-functional alignment and maturity, showing that deployment management is not siloed but part of the organization's value streams.
Option A (The deployment management team regularly suggests and implements improvement opportunities): Incorrect, as continual improvement is characteristic of higher capability levels (e.g., level 4), not the defining feature of level 3.
Option B (Employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows): Correct, as level 3 focuses on integration and collaboration across practices, per ITIL 4's capability framework.
Option C (The deployment manager is able to report on the effectiveness of the deployment management practice): Incorrect, as reporting effectiveness is a general management task, not specific to level 3 maturity.
Option D (Deployment models are developed and implemented): Incorrect, as model development occurs at lower capability levels (e.g., level 1 or 2), not a hallmark of level 3.


NEW QUESTION # 13
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which is a key feature of continuous deployment which is not found in other CI/CD stages?

  • A. It automatically tests software code
  • B. It enables users to benefit immediately from changes
  • C. It allows individual decisions about software releases
  • D. It predominantly uses staging environments

Answer: B

Explanation:
Continuous deployment (CD) in ITIL 4 is the most advanced stage of the CI/CD pipeline, where every validated change is automatically deployed to production without manual intervention. The key feature unique to continuous deployment, not found in continuous integration or continuous delivery, is that it enables users to benefit immediately from changes (Option B), as changes reach production instantly after passing automated tests.
Option A (It automatically tests software code): Incorrect, as automated testing is a feature of continuous integration and continuous delivery, not unique to continuous deployment.
Option B (It enables users to benefit immediately from changes): Correct, as continuous deployment automatically pushes validated changes to production, delivering value to users without delay, unlike other CI/CD stages.
Option C (It predominantly uses staging environments): Incorrect, as continuous deployment minimizes reliance on staging environments, deploying directly to production.
Option D (It allows individual decisions about software releases): Incorrect, as continuous deployment eliminates manual release decisions, relying on automation for consistency.


NEW QUESTION # 14
[Apply Deployment Management Processes]
What should be done if a newly developed deployment model cannot be tested for technical reasons?

  • A. Automate the activities of the new model before it is used
  • B. Carry out test deployments to see if the model works correctly
  • C. Closely monitor the first few uses of the new model
  • D. Only use the new model after a way to test it has been found

Answer: C

Explanation:
When a newly developed deployment model cannot be tested due to technical limitations, ITIL 4 emphasizes a risk-based approach to deployment management to ensure stability and minimize disruption. Option C, closely monitoring the first few uses of the new model, aligns with ITIL 4's guidance to proceed cautiously when full testing is not feasible. This approach allows the organization to deploy the model in a controlled environment, observe its performance, and quickly address any issues, thereby reducing risk while gathering real-world data.
Option A (Only use the new model after a way to test it has been found): While testing is ideal, delaying deployment indefinitely until a testing method is found may not be practical, especially if business needs require timely deployment. This option is overly restrictive and does not balance risk with operational demands.
Option B (Carry out test deployments to see if the model works correctly): Conducting test deployments assumes testing is possible, which contradicts the question's premise that testing cannot be done for technical reasons. This makes the option invalid.
Option C (Closely monitor the first few uses of the new model): This is the most pragmatic approach, as it allows deployment with safeguards like monitoring to mitigate risks, aligning with ITIL's focus on value delivery and risk management.
Option D (Automate the activities of the new model before it is used): Automating an untested model could amplify risks, as automation without validation may propagate errors across environments.


NEW QUESTION # 15
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